Airman Selection Test Group ‘X’ : Solved Paper
Indian Air Force
Airman Selection Test, 2008 : Solved Paper
Group ‘X’ (Technical) Trades
Airman Selection Test, 2008 : Solved Paper
Group ‘X’ (Technical) Trades
Directions—(Q. 1 to 5) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Florence Nightingle was born in the year 1820 in a small town in Italy. Her parents were famous and rich. They looked after little Florence very carefully. But, Florence was thin and sickly.
One day little Florence said to her father, “father, I would like to be a nurse.” The little girl's father said, “My dear, I do not think you can be a nurse. Nursing is hard work.” “I will try, ” said Florence. Soon she began to learn nursing at home.
One day Florence was returning home early from school. On the way she saw a dog lying on the road. It was crying bitterly. An unkind boy hit the poor creature with a big stone. It hurt right leg and it was bleeding badly. Florence became very sad. She gently carried the dog home and nursed the wound. She tied a bandage tightly round the leg. In a week the dog was quite well. Soon the dog became friendly with Florence. It wagged its tail and jumped around her playfully and licked Florence all over, as if, it wanted to say, “Thank you, little nurse, thank you.”
1. Florence wanted to become—
(A) An animal lover
(B) A teacher
(C) A nurse
(D) An M.L.A.
Ans : (C)
2. When Florence expressed her desire to become a nurse her father ?
(A) Agreed readily
(B) Was very doubtful
(C) Kept silent
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. On the way, she saw—
(A) An unkind boy hitting a dog
(B) A wounded dog lying on the road
(C) A dog limping across the road
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. Florence nursed the wounded dog because—
(A) She wanted to be a nurse
(B) Her father told her to do so
(C) She felt pity for the dog
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. The dog licked Florence all over to—
(A) clean her body
(B) express thanks
(C) show its anger
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 6 to 8) In each of the following questions choose the opposite in meaning—
6. Condemned(A) Abandoned
(B) Shifted
(C) Acquiesced
(D) Taken in
Ans : (C)
7. Deny
(A) Renounce
(B) Confirm
(C) Controvert
(D) Disappear
Ans : (B)
8. Disparage
(A) Discredit
(B) Perceive
(C) Incline
(D) Approve
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 9 to 11) In each of the following questions choose the same word in meaning—
9. Discretion
(A) Judiciousness
(B) Examine
(C) Assent
(D) Accede
Ans : (A)
10. Dreadful
(A) Propitious
(B) Auspicious
(C) Frightful
(D) Estranged
Ans : (C)
11. Exchanted(A) Attracted
(B) Captivated
(C) Influenced
(D) Comprehended
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 12 to 15) Choose the error and give its options from (A), (B), (C) and (D)—
12. It is not easy (A) / to beat out (B) / a swarm of (C) / wasps if they attack you. (D)
Ans : (B) beat off
13. I would (A) / do this (B) / if (C) / I was allowed. (D)
Ans : (D) were allowed
14. I asked (A) / him (B) / where (C) / did he live. (D)
Ans : (D) ‘he lived’ in place of ‘did he live’.
15. The soldiers (A) / as well as (B) / the commanders was (C) / running away. (D)
Ans : (C) ‘were’ in place of ‘was’
Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Fill in the blanks with suitable options—
16. He hankers … money.
(A) over
(B) for
(C) after
(D) about
Ans : (C)
17. It was with considerable …… that we heard the news of his rescue.
(A) relieve
(B) reliefs
(C) relieves
(D) relief
Ans : (D)
18. He was accused … murder.
(A) for
(B) of
(C) with
(D) about
Ans : (B)
19. He is looking … his lost book.
(A) down
(B) into
(C) out
(D) for
Ans : (D)
20. Any activity which is prejudicial … law and order is punishable.
(A) for
(B) to
(C) from
(D) on
Ans : (B)
21. Average error of some measurement is—
(A) Arithmetic mean of the errors
(B) Arithmetic mean of the errors, leaving aside the errors’ signs
(C) Average of the squares of the errors
(D) Geometric mean of the errors
Ans : (B)
22. Number of significant figures in 0•00321 are—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans : (B)
23. In significant figures, the difference of 2•57 metres and 2•4 metres is—
(A) 0•17 m
(B) 0•70 m
(C) 0•2 m
(D) 0•485 m
Ans : (C)
24. E is the kinetic energy of an object, when it is projected at the maximum range of projection angle. At the highest point of its passage, its horizontal kinetic energy would be—
(A) E
(B) E/2
(C) E/3
(D) Zero
Ans : (B)
25. If some particle rotates on a circular path, the force that maintains it rotating uniformly is called—
(A) Centripetal force
(B) Atomic force
(C) Internal force
(D) Gravitational force
Ans : (A)
26. In a simple pendulum, isochronous length is equal to—
(A) Distance between centre of oscillation and centre of gravity
(B) Distance between the centre of suspension and centre of gravity
(C) Distance between the centre of suspension and centre of oscillation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
27. Distance between the two continuous antinodes of a stationary wave is—
(A) One wavelength
(B) Half wavelength
(C) Two wavelengths
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
28. Two similar waves propagate in opposite directions in a medium—
(A) Absorb sound energy
(B) Create beats
(C) Create stationary waves
(D) Create resonance
Ans : (C)
29. Unit of reactance is—
(A) Ohm
(B) mho
(C) Farad (F)
(D) Ampere (A)
Ans : (A)
30. A hot-wire-ammeter measures the ……… of A.C. current—
(A) Peak value
(B) Average value
(C) Root average square current
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
31. In a p-n junction—
(A) There are two semi-conductor junctions
(B) There are two metal junctions
(C) There is a metal semi-conductor junction
(D) There is a metallic super conductor junction
Ans : (A)
32. The particles obtained from thermionic emission are—
(A) Protons
(B) Electrons
(C) Neutrons
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
33. In P-type semi-conductor, the main current carriers are—
(A) Electrons
(B) Holes
(C) Photons
(D) Protons
Ans : (B)
34. Dispersion of light is possible if and only if the medium is—
(A) Water
(B) Glass
(C) Water or glass
(D) Some transparent medium
Ans : (D)
35. Colour of light is identified with the—
(A) Speed of light in air
(B) Frequency
(C) Amplitude
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
36. In a set of playing cards, there are 52 cards. From this set of cards, two cards are taken out, at random. The probability of both the cards to be ace will be—
(A) 1/221
(B) 1/111
(C) 25/4
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
Florence Nightingle was born in the year 1820 in a small town in Italy. Her parents were famous and rich. They looked after little Florence very carefully. But, Florence was thin and sickly.
One day little Florence said to her father, “father, I would like to be a nurse.” The little girl's father said, “My dear, I do not think you can be a nurse. Nursing is hard work.” “I will try, ” said Florence. Soon she began to learn nursing at home.
One day Florence was returning home early from school. On the way she saw a dog lying on the road. It was crying bitterly. An unkind boy hit the poor creature with a big stone. It hurt right leg and it was bleeding badly. Florence became very sad. She gently carried the dog home and nursed the wound. She tied a bandage tightly round the leg. In a week the dog was quite well. Soon the dog became friendly with Florence. It wagged its tail and jumped around her playfully and licked Florence all over, as if, it wanted to say, “Thank you, little nurse, thank you.”
1. Florence wanted to become—
(A) An animal lover
(B) A teacher
(C) A nurse
(D) An M.L.A.
Ans : (C)
2. When Florence expressed her desire to become a nurse her father ?
(A) Agreed readily
(B) Was very doubtful
(C) Kept silent
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. On the way, she saw—
(A) An unkind boy hitting a dog
(B) A wounded dog lying on the road
(C) A dog limping across the road
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. Florence nursed the wounded dog because—
(A) She wanted to be a nurse
(B) Her father told her to do so
(C) She felt pity for the dog
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. The dog licked Florence all over to—
(A) clean her body
(B) express thanks
(C) show its anger
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 6 to 8) In each of the following questions choose the opposite in meaning—
6. Condemned(A) Abandoned
(B) Shifted
(C) Acquiesced
(D) Taken in
Ans : (C)
7. Deny
(A) Renounce
(B) Confirm
(C) Controvert
(D) Disappear
Ans : (B)
8. Disparage
(A) Discredit
(B) Perceive
(C) Incline
(D) Approve
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 9 to 11) In each of the following questions choose the same word in meaning—
9. Discretion
(A) Judiciousness
(B) Examine
(C) Assent
(D) Accede
Ans : (A)
10. Dreadful
(A) Propitious
(B) Auspicious
(C) Frightful
(D) Estranged
Ans : (C)
11. Exchanted(A) Attracted
(B) Captivated
(C) Influenced
(D) Comprehended
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 12 to 15) Choose the error and give its options from (A), (B), (C) and (D)—
12. It is not easy (A) / to beat out (B) / a swarm of (C) / wasps if they attack you. (D)
Ans : (B) beat off
13. I would (A) / do this (B) / if (C) / I was allowed. (D)
Ans : (D) were allowed
14. I asked (A) / him (B) / where (C) / did he live. (D)
Ans : (D) ‘he lived’ in place of ‘did he live’.
15. The soldiers (A) / as well as (B) / the commanders was (C) / running away. (D)
Ans : (C) ‘were’ in place of ‘was’
Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Fill in the blanks with suitable options—
16. He hankers … money.
(A) over
(B) for
(C) after
(D) about
Ans : (C)
17. It was with considerable …… that we heard the news of his rescue.
(A) relieve
(B) reliefs
(C) relieves
(D) relief
Ans : (D)
18. He was accused … murder.
(A) for
(B) of
(C) with
(D) about
Ans : (B)
19. He is looking … his lost book.
(A) down
(B) into
(C) out
(D) for
Ans : (D)
20. Any activity which is prejudicial … law and order is punishable.
(A) for
(B) to
(C) from
(D) on
Ans : (B)
21. Average error of some measurement is—
(A) Arithmetic mean of the errors
(B) Arithmetic mean of the errors, leaving aside the errors’ signs
(C) Average of the squares of the errors
(D) Geometric mean of the errors
Ans : (B)
22. Number of significant figures in 0•00321 are—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans : (B)
23. In significant figures, the difference of 2•57 metres and 2•4 metres is—
(A) 0•17 m
(B) 0•70 m
(C) 0•2 m
(D) 0•485 m
Ans : (C)
24. E is the kinetic energy of an object, when it is projected at the maximum range of projection angle. At the highest point of its passage, its horizontal kinetic energy would be—
(A) E
(B) E/2
(C) E/3
(D) Zero
Ans : (B)
25. If some particle rotates on a circular path, the force that maintains it rotating uniformly is called—
(A) Centripetal force
(B) Atomic force
(C) Internal force
(D) Gravitational force
Ans : (A)
26. In a simple pendulum, isochronous length is equal to—
(A) Distance between centre of oscillation and centre of gravity
(B) Distance between the centre of suspension and centre of gravity
(C) Distance between the centre of suspension and centre of oscillation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
27. Distance between the two continuous antinodes of a stationary wave is—
(A) One wavelength
(B) Half wavelength
(C) Two wavelengths
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
28. Two similar waves propagate in opposite directions in a medium—
(A) Absorb sound energy
(B) Create beats
(C) Create stationary waves
(D) Create resonance
Ans : (C)
29. Unit of reactance is—
(A) Ohm
(B) mho
(C) Farad (F)
(D) Ampere (A)
Ans : (A)
30. A hot-wire-ammeter measures the ……… of A.C. current—
(A) Peak value
(B) Average value
(C) Root average square current
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
31. In a p-n junction—
(A) There are two semi-conductor junctions
(B) There are two metal junctions
(C) There is a metal semi-conductor junction
(D) There is a metallic super conductor junction
Ans : (A)
32. The particles obtained from thermionic emission are—
(A) Protons
(B) Electrons
(C) Neutrons
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
33. In P-type semi-conductor, the main current carriers are—
(A) Electrons
(B) Holes
(C) Photons
(D) Protons
Ans : (B)
34. Dispersion of light is possible if and only if the medium is—
(A) Water
(B) Glass
(C) Water or glass
(D) Some transparent medium
Ans : (D)
35. Colour of light is identified with the—
(A) Speed of light in air
(B) Frequency
(C) Amplitude
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
36. In a set of playing cards, there are 52 cards. From this set of cards, two cards are taken out, at random. The probability of both the cards to be ace will be—
(A) 1/221
(B) 1/111
(C) 25/4
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
• QualificationCandidate should have passed intermediate/10+2/Equivalent Examination with Physics and Mathematics with minimum of 50% marks in overall aggregate OR should have pass a three years Diploma Course in Engineering (Mechanical/Electrical/Electronics/Automobile/Computer Science/Instrumentation Technology/Information Technology) with at least 50% marks from a Govt. recognised Polytechnic/Institute.
• Medical Standards
(a) Height : Minimum acceptable height : 152.5 cm.
(b) Chest : Minimum range of expansion : 5 cm
(c) Weight : Proportionate to height and age.
(d) Vision : Minimum visual standard : Unaided 6/36, corrected to at least 6/9 in each eye with spectacles, dioptectric power not exceeding ± 3.5 Dioptres in any axis. Full field of vision and Defective safe colour vision CP-II/III. (Candidates should bring latest prescription and spectacles for corrected vision, if used)(e) Corneal surgery (PRK/LASIK) is not acceptable.
(f) Hearing : Candidates should have normal hearing, i.e., able to hear forced whisper from a distance of 6 metres with each ear separately (Ears to be free of wax).
(g) Dental : Should have healthy gums, good set of teeth and minimum 14 dental points.
(h) Health : The candidate should be free from any medical or surgical deformity. He should be free from all communicable diseases and skin ailments.
Candidates must be physically and mentally FIT to perform duty in any part of the world, in any climate and terrain.
• Tenure
Enrolment is for an initial period of 20 years extendable upto the age of 57 years.
• Training
Initially candidates will be sent for a Joint Basic Phase Training (JBPT) for 12 weeks at ATS Belgaum (Karnataka). On successful completion of JBPT, candidates will be allocated trades and sent for trade training of specified durations. Training is however liable to be terminated at any time if the trainee fails to achieve the required standards in academics, profession, physical fitness and discipline or is found to be medically unfit.
• Written Test
Candidates will be tested in English, Physics and Mathematics based on CBSE syllabus of AISSCE. Question papers will be objective type and bilingual (English & Hindi) except English Paper. Duration of Written Test will be 60 minutes. Candidates are to qualify in each paper separately. Results of the written test will be declared on the same day.
• Physical Fitness Test (PFT)In Physical Fitness Test, a 1.6 km run to be completed in a maximum of 8 minutes. Candidates completing the PFT in less than 7 minutes 30 seconds will be awarded additional marks on a sliding scale. Candidates are advised to bring their sports shoes and shorts.
• Interview and Medical Examination
Candidates who have passed the Written Test and PFT will be interviewed. Working knowledge of spoken English is a prerequisite. Those who are recommended in interview will be subjected to Medical Examination by Air Force Medical Team as per IAF medical standards. The candidates are advised, if required, to get their ears cleaned of wax, tartar and stains removed from teeth and eyesight corrected before appearing in the written test. Candidates using glasses should bring with them the latest prescription for the same from their eye specialist.
• Examination Centres
Ambala, New Delhi, Kanpur, Barrackpore (Kolkata), Jodhpur, Mumbai, Bhopal, Bangalore, Chennai, Bhubaneshwar, Bihta (Patna), Guwahati, Secunderabad and Kochi (Kerala).
• EligibilityQualification : Candidates should have Passed Intermediate/10 + 2/Equivalent examination with Science, Arts or Commerce subjects or equivalent vocational courses with minimum 50% marks in aggregate. Vocational courses should be recognized by CBSE/State Education Boards.
Medical Standards :
(a) Minimum Height : 152.5 cm
(b) Chest : Minimum range of expansion : 5 cm
(c) Weight : Proportionate to height and age.
(d) Vision : Minimum Visual Standard : Unaided 6/36, corrected with glass 6/9 each eye, Dioptectric power not exceeding ± 3.5 Dioptres in any axis. Full field of vision and defective safe colour vision CP-II/III. (Candidates should bring latest prescription and spectacles for corrected vision, if used),
(e) Corneal Surgery (PRK/LASIK) is not acceptable,
(f) Hearing : Able to hear forced whisper at 6 metres with each ear separately (ears should be free of wax).
(g) Dental : Should have healthy gums, good set of teeth and minimum 14 dental points.
(h) Health : The candidate should be free from all communicable diseases and skill ailments. There should be no Medical or Major Surgical deformity. Candidate must be physically and mentally FIT to perform duty in any part of the world, in any climate and terrain.
• Selection ProcedureWritten Test : Eligible candidates will be sent Admit Cards by the Central Airmen Selection Board for appearing in a written test. Candidates will be tested in English as per CBSE syllabus of AISSCE and Reasoning and General Awareness (RGA). All the papers will be objective type with multiple choice answers. Duration of written test will be 45 minutes. Candidates are to qualify in each paper separately. Results of the written test will be declared on the same day.
• Physical Fitness Test (PFT)
All candidates who pass the written examination will be given Physical Fitness Test (PFT) on the same or the next day. PET consists of a 1.6 km run is to be completed in maximum of 8 minutes. Those completing the PFT in less than 7 minutes 30 seconds will be graded as per time of completion and additional marks will be awarded. Candidates should bring sports shoes and shorts.
• Interview/Medical Examination
Candidates who qualify in the interview will be medically examined. Medical Examination will be conducted by Air Force Medical Team as per IAF medical standards. Candidates declared Temporary Medically Unfit will be required to report to the respective Airmen Selection Centre within a maximum period of 42 days for review from the date of Recruiting Medical Examination.
Candidates declared Medically Unfit can avail the option for Appeal Medical Board (AMB) against their Unfitness by depositing Rs. 40/- in a Government Treasury/RBI/SBI through Military Receivable Order (MRO). The application for AMB alongwith original copy of MRO, Xerox copy of Unfitness Certificate and Postal Stamp worth Rs. 25/- affixed on a self addressed envelope are to be submitted to respective ASCs for processing within 07 working days from the date of issue of Medical Certificate.
Note—Candidates are advised to get tartar & stains removed from their teeth before appearing for the written test. Ears to be free of wax.
• Examination Centres
All Airmen Selection Centres (Ambala, New Delhi, Kanpur, Barrackpore (Kolkata), Jodhpur, Mumbai, Bhopal, Bangalore, Chennai, Bhubaneshwar, Bihta (Patna), Guwahati, Secunderabad and Kochi (Kerala) are likely to be activated.
(h) Health : The candidate should be free from all communicable diseases and skill ailments. There should be no Medical or Major Surgical deformity. Candidate must be physically and mentally FIT to perform duty in any part of the world, in any climate and terrain.
• Selection ProcedureWritten Test : Eligible candidates will be sent Admit Cards by the Central Airmen Selection Board for appearing in a written test. Candidates will be tested in English as per CBSE syllabus of AISSCE and Reasoning and General Awareness (RGA). All the papers will be objective type with multiple choice answers. Duration of written test will be 45 minutes. Candidates are to qualify in each paper separately. Results of the written test will be declared on the same day.
• Physical Fitness Test (PFT)
All candidates who pass the written examination will be given Physical Fitness Test (PFT) on the same or the next day. PET consists of a 1.6 km run is to be completed in maximum of 8 minutes. Those completing the PFT in less than 7 minutes 30 seconds will be graded as per time of completion and additional marks will be awarded. Candidates should bring sports shoes and shorts.
• Interview/Medical Examination
Candidates who qualify in the interview will be medically examined. Medical Examination will be conducted by Air Force Medical Team as per IAF medical standards. Candidates declared Temporary Medically Unfit will be required to report to the respective Airmen Selection Centre within a maximum period of 42 days for review from the date of Recruiting Medical Examination.
Candidates declared Medically Unfit can avail the option for Appeal Medical Board (AMB) against their Unfitness by depositing Rs. 40/- in a Government Treasury/RBI/SBI through Military Receivable Order (MRO). The application for AMB alongwith original copy of MRO, Xerox copy of Unfitness Certificate and Postal Stamp worth Rs. 25/- affixed on a self addressed envelope are to be submitted to respective ASCs for processing within 07 working days from the date of issue of Medical Certificate.
Note—Candidates are advised to get tartar & stains removed from their teeth before appearing for the written test. Ears to be free of wax.
• Examination Centres
All Airmen Selection Centres (Ambala, New Delhi, Kanpur, Barrackpore (Kolkata), Jodhpur, Mumbai, Bhopal, Bangalore, Chennai, Bhubaneshwar, Bihta (Patna), Guwahati, Secunderabad and Kochi (Kerala) are likely to be activated.


No comments:
Post a Comment